Jesus' birth in Isaiah 7:14 states: "Therefore the Lord himself will give you a sign: The virgin will conceive and give birth to a son, and will call him Immanuel."
The Hebrew "almah" means "young woman" and not a "virgin." However, the Greek Septuagint translated it as "parthenos" (virgin), and the Gospel of Matthew uses this translation to link the prophecy to Jesus.
Would someone help me understand why this happened?
The Hebrew "almah" means "young woman" and not a "virgin." However, the Greek Septuagint translated it as "parthenos" (virgin), and the Gospel of Matthew uses this translation to link the prophecy to Jesus.
Would someone help me understand why this happened?